Refutation against the Doubt that the Shaykh has declared the Books of
the Four Madhaahib Worthless
And Allah knows
that the man has fabricated against me affairs that I have not stated. And most
of these affairs have not even been brought to my attention. So from them is
his statement that I have declared the books of the four Madhaahib worthless
and that I say the people have been upon nothing for the last six hundred
years.
Explanation:
It is correct that
the Shaykh declares the books of the four Madhaahib worthless? This is from the
greatest of lies. They Shaykh himself studied the madhhab of the Hanaabilah,
but he did not remain staunch upon the madhhab of the Hanaabilah. Rather, he
took whatever was based upon the proof, regardless of whether it came from the
madhhab of ash-Shaafi’ee (d.204H), or the madhhab of Maalik (d.179H), or the
madhhab of Abee Haneefah (d.150H). This was the manhaj of the Shaykh. His origin
(asl) was upon the madhhab of Imam Ahmad (d.241H). However, with regards to
religious verdicts, he took whatever had the strongest proof, regardless of whether
it came from the madhhab of Imam Ahmed or other than him. He was not fanatical,
he only wanted the truth. This was his manhaj in fatwa (religious verdicts) and
teaching. He would take whatever has the strongest evidence, from any madhhab
from amongst the four Madhaahib. However, he did not go outside of the four Madhaahib.
So the statement of
Ibn Suhaym, “…declared the books of the four Madhaahib worthless,” is a lie,
because he did not go outside of the four Madhaahib. Rather, he benefited from
them and gave fatwa based upon whoever has the strongest evidence from amongst
them, regardless of whether that was in agreement with his Hanbalee madhhab or
not, because he wanted to reach the truth.
And he said, “The
people have been upon nothing for the last six hundred years.” Meaning, he
declared the people of disbelievers. This is from the fabrications of Ibn
Suhaym, that the Shaykh declared the people to be disbelievers. Why did he declare
the people disbelievers? Was it because he called to Tawheed and prohibited
Shirk? So due to this, they alleged that he declared the people disbelievers,
whilst he was only calling to Tawheed and prohibiting Shirk. And he did not
declare the people to be disbelievers, he did not declare anyone a disbeliever,
except the one whose disbelief has been confirmed by a proof from the Book and
the Sunnah, as occurs in the ten invalidators of Islaam, which he wrote about.
From the Book: “Explanation
of the ‘Aqeedah of the Imaam, the Reformer, Muhammad ibn ‘Abdul-Wahhaab
(d.1206H) Explained by the Noble Shaykh, Dr. Saalih ibn Fawzaan al-Fawzaan. Pgs.:
234-235.
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